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Beginner November 2021

Grammar

Mariah, on August 9, 2021 at 12:57 PM Posted in Etiquette and Advice 0 5

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Is it:

A block of rooms has been set aside at

or

A block of rooms have been set aside at

I keep overthinking it and they both sound weird to me now, lol.

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5 Comments

Latest activity by Allie, on August 9, 2021 at 1:49 PM

Master October 2020
Yasmine · on August 9, 2021 at 1:00 PM
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The first one is grammatically correct. "A block of rooms has been set aside" ... Although I personally think that have sounds better lol
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VIP August 2020
Katie · on August 9, 2021 at 1:04 PM
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Agreed with Yasmine! We wrote “Room blocks have been established for preferential rates. Please visit our wedding website below for direct access to the block link prior to (date of block deadline here).”

Hope this helps ❤️
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Legend July 2022
Lisa · on August 9, 2021 at 1:04 PM
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"A block of rooms has been set aside..."
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Master January 2022
SLY · on August 9, 2021 at 1:11 PM
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You can do either "Room blocks have been set aside..." OR " A block of rooms has been set aside..." both are grammatically correct.
Your second option may sound better to you, but it isn't grammatically correct! So I'd go with the first one if you like the wording!
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Expert September 2022
Allie · on August 9, 2021 at 1:49 PM
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The right one would be "has," since it needs to agree with "block." You could also write that "hotel rooms have been set aside at..." Good luck with your planning!
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